Appeasing Germany

The appeasement of Germany in the years 1933-1936 arose primarily from feelings of guilt. After 1936 it arose primarily from fear. How far do you agree with this statement?

When Germany lost the war in 1919, the allies Britain, France and America created the peace settlement which became known as the Treaty of Versailles. The treaty was seen by Germany as a diktat that the allies had tricked them into signing as they thought the settlement would be based on President Wilsons 14 points declaring equality and self determination. Instead the terms included the war guilt clause, declaring Germany was to blame for causing the war which meant she had to pay six billion pounds in reparations as compensations. Also the German military was restricted and German colonies and territory were taken away. However the it was thought that the treaty had been too harsh on Germany and that the terms were self defeating by many British politicians aswell. In the 1920's there had already been several changes to the Treaty of Versailles including the dawes plan 1924, young plan 1929 which reduced the economic demands of the treaty.

When Hitler came to power in 1933 the policy of appeasement played a major role in British foreign policy. In the period 1933 - 1936 there were a number of ways in which the British sought to appease Germany. This policy was used for a number of reasons, including the guilt they felt over the harsh terms of the treaty of versailles. The first major example of appeasement was in 1935 when Hitler publicly announced his plans of rearmament, which specifically broke the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, the British, French and Russians met in Stresa to discuss Hitlers aims. However no action was taken against Germany, instead they introduced the Anglo-German naval pact in which Britain agreed Germany could have a navy 35% the size of the British navy. The next episode of appeasement was in 1936 when Hitler orders German troops to march into the Rhineland despite it being a demilitarised zone under the Treaty of Versailles. Again despite Hitlers blatant disregard for the treaty, the French and British appeased Hitler rather than took action against him.

In the period 1933 to 1936 Germany posed no major threat to Britain or the rest of Europe as the economy hadn't progressed sufficiently enough to be classed as a major threat and the military terms of the Treaty of Versailles had so far been obeyed, so Britains decision to accept the demands of Hitler at this time can be said to have partly arisen from the guilt they felt over the Treaty of Versailles. However guilt was not the only factor contributing to the reasons behind appeasement. The major view of the British public over the Rhineland crisis was that Germany was simply putting German troops on German soil and this view was shared by many politicians. There were more important issues for the government to deal with like the social reforms such "homes fit for heros" that the government had promised in world war one. The actions of Germany in this period were understood by the British and they seemed legitimate. The appeasement of Germany therefor seemed logical, as a satisfied power Britain was willing to co-operate and compromise on terms that posed no immediate threat to them. The guilt felt by the British on the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, therfore played a part in Britains policy of appeasement however, guilt alone would not have been a substantial reason.

After 1936 Britain continued to use appeasement as a way of dealing with Germany. In 1938 when Hitler planned the invasion of the Sudentland of czechoslovakia. The British i appeased Germany by using the Munich agreement which persuaded

czechoslovakia to agree by refusing to assist them in standing against Hitler. Then the