Divorce and the Bible

The law defines divorce as Ў§a legal dissolution of the marriage contract by a court or other body having competent authority. This is properly a divorce, and called, technically, divorce a vinculo matrimonii. ''from the bond of matrimony.'' (b) The separation of a married woman from the bed and board of her husband -- divorce a mensa et toro (or thoro), ''from bed board.''ЎЁ Does this definition follow that of the Bible?

Mark 10:1-12ЎX ЎҐJesus then left that place and went into the region of Judea and across the Jordan. Again crowds of people came to him, and as was his custom, he taught them. Some Pharisees came and tested him by asking, Ў§Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?ЎЁ

Ў§What did Moses command you?ЎЁ He replied.

They said, Ў§Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce and send her away.ЎЁ

Ў§It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,ЎЁ Jesus replied.

Ў§But at the beginning of creation God made them male and female. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh. So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate.ЎЁ

When they were in the house again, the disciples asked Jesus about this. He answered, Ў§Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her. And if she divorces her husband and marries another man, she commits adultery.Ў¦

According to Mark, Jesus was not only against divorce but he detested the actions of man to allow it against the word of God. He is trying to explain what divorce means to God. Apparently, it is the joining of two peopleЎXminds, bodies, and souls. These people are no longer people. They are a person. He also states that Moses only made the law to solve the problems that humankind was having.

It seems that Moses was without patience when making his declaration. The crowd was already going against God, and their religion had taken a step down their priority list. Moses was just giving his people what they wanted to hear. He only allowed the man to give a statement of divorce. He allowed them to take from that what they did. He was still serving his religion with this decision. He was not allowing them to separate their souls.

I believe Jesus was only reiterating, or clarifying, this act of Moses. He explained to the masses that Moses was only allowing the couple to live in different households. Before God, the couple remains married and the divorce statement changes only the living situation. I believe that Jesus brought up the examples of adultery to better illustrate his point.

If a couple decides to become divorced, they only decide to live apart. They are still married. Before God, they are not allowed to remarry. Marrying, or engaging in sexual acts with, another while married is considered adultery. Thus, doing these acts while living in separate homes is still adultery.

Matthew 5:31-32: ЎҐ Ў§It has been said, ЎҐAnyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.Ў¦ But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become and adulteress, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.ЎЁЎ¦

What exactly was Jesus saying here? It seems to be quite similar to the recollection of Mark, but with an added twist. The married couple is still bound before God. Thus, the adultery aspect still stands after the marriage. However, Jesus explains that divorce is only permissible in the case of adultery. Does this act of divorce label her as an adulterer? Or, is he saying that a divorce is only considered a divorce before God after adultery?

A loop-hole is seemingly formed in this statement. A divorce is only considered a divorce of spirit after an adulteryЎXmeaning it is the ultimate sin in a marriage. If one decides to become divorced for other reasons, then it is not an actual divorce before God. Thus, if the wife decides to remarry, it is considered adultery. Is the divorce then final before God? The answer must surely be yes, but the label still falls on the head of the adulterer.

Matthew 19:3-9- ЎҐSome Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, Ў§Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?ЎЁ

Ў§HavenЎ¦t you read,ЎЁ he replied, Ў§that at the beginning the Creator ЎҐmade them male and female.Ў¦ And said, ЎҐFor this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.Ў¦? So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man